“The penetration, no matter how slight, of the vagina or anus with any body part or object, or oral penetration by a sex organ of another person, without the consent of the victim.”
These days it’s being mulled a rape if a husband inflicts himself upon his wife against her will, even if she yields under duress of certain outmoded norms of allegiance. Yielding under certain duress, economic or other, does tantamount to being raped.One would, however, make a distinction betweenThe change of Philomel, by the barbarous kingSo rudely forced;andShe turns and looks a moment in the glass,Hardly aware of her departed lover;Her brain allows one half-formed thought to pass:“Well now that’s done: and I’m glad it’s over.”CROn Wed, Oct 9, 2019 at 11:39 AM Nancy Gish <[log in to unmask]> wrote:Dear Tim,I think it is what now gets called "date rape." My students tend to agree on that. Also, terms and ideas about what constitutes "rape" have changed a lot in #MeToo. The idea that it is entirely a woman's responsibility to stop an asssult (Eliot's word) is gone with Harvey Weinstein et. al.Cheers,NancyOn Wed, Oct 9, 2019, 11:31 AM Materer, Timothy J. <[log in to unmask]> wrote:I’m offering an adult ed (Osher) class on Eliot, and yesterday we discussed the Typist and Clerk passage. I of course related the situation to the Philomela story and other related passages and raised the issue of whether the typist was raped. One woman said that she was not b/c the typist offered no real resistance and was not forced, and the class (15) accepted that view. But I plan to return to the issue next class with the question of whether economic (she’s a typist in a bed-sit) and patriarchal forces were in play, which would amount to duress and thus rape.
Maybe some of you could offer some tips about how to approach the issue.