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I'm confused.  I made it clear that I wasn't talking about the specifics; why make your point again and pretend I didn't say what I did.  Please just ignore my posts fully instead of this sort of snub.

Nancy Gish wrote:
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My point about the pronoun is that it has been in continual usage for centuries and is now.  The notion of correctness, in this case, was made in the late 17th and early 18th C on the basis that the male term was more inclusive.  Now that is a form of absurdity masked as grammar.
 
Cheers,
Nancy

>>> Marcia Karp <[log in to unmask]>01/08/10 3:06 PM >>>
As for the general, not the specific, point:

The OED is not in the business to approve or disapprove.  It records usage.  On occasion it will indicate how usages are seen, as vulg. or joc. or this, s.v. variorum:
 d. Used, chiefly attrib., to denote an edition, usu. of an author's complete works, containing variant readings from manuscripts or earlier editions.
  This use is deplored by some scholars.
While the record of use is indispensable, correctness for any particular period or occasion is not determined by what has been done before or elsewhere.  Correctness includes language being, in part, a social convention.

Best,
Marcia


Diana Manister wrote:
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Do you mean "they" and "their" for he/she and hers/his? I do use this but felt it was fudging. I'll be glad to know it's OK with OED!
 

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