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Jacek Niecko wrote:
>
> I have pondered
> this question
> for a number of days
> and
> for a number of days
> refrained
> from asking it,
> for fear
> of sounding offensive
> again,
> but is it really
> necessary
> to be an "Elizabethan"
> (I suspect a scholar in that domain)
> to know the difference
> between "Marlowe" and "Marlow"?


Pretty nice verse Jacek.
The answer is
"No"
though.

Regards,
    Rick Parker


P.S.  I bet anyone else could break up Jacek's
post better.