Jacek Niecko wrote: > > I have pondered > this question > for a number of days > and > for a number of days > refrained > from asking it, > for fear > of sounding offensive > again, > but is it really > necessary > to be an "Elizabethan" > (I suspect a scholar in that domain) > to know the difference > between "Marlowe" and "Marlow"? Pretty nice verse Jacek. The answer is "No" though. Regards, Rick Parker P.S. I bet anyone else could break up Jacek's post better.