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Sara

W. H. Auden's "Lectures on Shakespeare", (Princeton Univ P, Princeton,
2000).

I have always been curious as to why T. S. Eliot saw "Hamlet" as an example
of a poet not controlling emotion properly in the work and saw "Coriolanus"
as one of Shakespeare's better works.  How did Shakespeare provide
"objective correlatives"  better in "Coriolanus" than in "Hamlet" or did he?
I think an investigation along these lines would perhaps reveal a little
more about what TSE thought about the "objective correlative" and about what
TSE thought of Shakespeare in general.

Rick Seddon
McIntosh, NM