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Curious that I should run into the following from Pound's
Carta da Vista (Rome, 1942) published in English in 1952
by Peter Russell: "Eliot would recognise, I imagine, a greater
influence of Lanman and Woods, his professors of sanskit [sic],
than the superficial influence of the French poets."

-----Original Message-----
From: Rickard A. Parker
To: [log in to unmask]
Sent: 2/12/04 9:33 AM
Subject: Re: Objective correlative

Sara Trevisan wrote:
>
> Paradoxically, I think Eliot best explained what an object correlative
is
> when he didn't mention it at all but just described it in 'Tradition
and the
> Individual Talent'.


Sara, I was doing a search for some information on Eliot and the Pali
language right after reading your post on the 'objective correlative'
and I came upon this serendipitous find of Eliot commenting upon the
fact that he may not have been the first to use the phrase.

    "It is a great many years since I coined, as I thought, the phrase
    'objective correlative'. ... It is a little difficult to say
positively,
    one way or another, whether what I meant some 35 years ago by the
    phrase corresponds to the analysis of the author of Vibhava.  ...
    I must confess that I am neither quite sure of what I meant 35 years
    ago, nor sure of what the Sanskrit philosopher meant a good deal
    longer ago than that"

    Cited with "Letter from Eliot to Nimai Chatterji, quoted in a letter
to
    the editor of The New Statesman, 5 March 1965, p. 361".

This was from an article printed in "Philosophy East & West."  More
detail can be seen on the online rendition of it at
    http://ccbs.ntu.edu.tw/FULLTEXT/JR-PHIL/ew33375.htm

I'd love to get more information about this.  Can anyone supply
anything more?

Regards,
    Rick Parker