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INGELBIEN RAPHAEL wrote:
>
>> Is Davie saying that two 'nors' are ungrammatical, or does he find it
> strange that the first 'nor' introduces a verb while second 'nor' is only
> followed by an adverbial clause?
>

Interesting question. And I don't have the slightest idea. Davie does
not elaborate on his throwaway clause, but goes on to discuss the
musical effect of the final "fought" in the passage.

Carrol

> Yours,
>
> RaphaŽl
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