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I have always been fascinated by the phrase “Unified
Sensibility” that Eliot found in the Elizabethans and
the Metaphysical poets.   I used to think what Eliot
meant by that phrase was a natural association of
‘thought’ and ‘feeling’, something spontaneous which
was not achievable by the later poets.  I made a note
of an earlier posting by Prof.Peter Montgomery,
wherein he associates Eliot’s Elizabethan sensibility
and his roots to medieval England.  A question comes
to my mind :

Was the “unified sensibility” possible to the
Elizabethans and the metaphysicals because they were
much closer to the English tradition which had its
roots in the Medieval mystics?

I apologize if it appears to be a crude question, but
I am just trying to sort out my understanding of
Eliot.

Thank You.

Regards,
vishvesh



PS : Prof.Peter Montgomery’s earlier note:
“I'm convinced that Eliot's devouring of the
Elizabethans was part of his need to find his roots
(as in East Coker). Elizabethan English was a
significant connection to the medieval mystics of
England (Ferrar et al. [good old al.]). He noted a
general loss of connection with that Eliz. sensibility
after Donne”.


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