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I do not know the history of how "McDonalds" became a brand name, and
brand names pay no attention as a rule to rules.  But it could well be
simply a plural rather than a possessive.  If it simply is the name of a
family, i.e., the McDonalds, then the possessive would be "Mcdonalds' "
and would not be in the brand name.
Nancy



Date sent:              Tue, 29 Oct 2002 23:21:56 -0800
Send reply to:          "T. S. Eliot Discussion forum." <[log in to unmask]>
From:                   Peter Montgomery <[log in to unmask]>
Subject:                OT: Further it's
To:                     [log in to unmask]

Nancy,
   I will more than willingly take advice from you on this use of the
apostophe(s). It looks as weird as all get out, to me, but I guess it's
right.


   McDonald's' prices are rising.

Cheers,
Peter