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Still, is there an "accepted" rationale or interpretation for line 202 of 
"The Waste Land" being stolen, or expropriated, from Verlaine's poem and 
kept in French rather translating it to English? If the poem is determined 
to allude to something with that line, an English translation of the line 
would maintain that allusion, wouldn't it? But keeping the line in French 
allows for the pun "voix" to make that allusion more ambiguous, if not 
humourous. Ambiguity certainly seems to be the lifeblood of "The Waste 
Land."

Still curious,
Steve

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