From: Rickard A. Parker
> > IF the apposition is to "us," who or what is the subject of the
> That might depend on the magic in the word "let." Is the default
> subject of "let" some unnamed power? In other languages a subject is
> not always needed.
I guess the problem is that English has a rather intricate form for the 1st
person plural of the imperative. Many other languages have a single verb
form, conjugated in the first person plural - the (implied) subject is then
clearly the equivalent of 'we'. Ex: French: 'allons'.
Since the rather anomalous construction 'let us' corresponds to a first
person plural imperative in other languages, it makes perfect semantic sense
to say 'let us go, then, you and I'.
I don't think 'you and I' can be read as an apposition to 'us'. It might
make syntactic sense, but semantically it doesn't work. Replace 'us' by the
apposition: 'Let you and me go' would carry an entirely different meaning -
it would be a request, not an imperative. The speaker in 'Prufrock' is not
making a request or suggestion. 'Let us go, then, you and I': 'then'
implies that the decision to go follows quite logically from what the
speaker and the addressee have said before.
> In the French though it is "you and me"
> Mon cher ami, nous ne sommes pas très loin, vous et moi, ...
The first person pronoun 'je' can only be used in a direct subject position.
In every other case, 'je' becomes 'moi' - even when it is an apposition to a
No apologies made to the grammar-bashers on the list - none whatsoever ;-)
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