Nancy Gish wrote:
> I am interested in Davies' complaint because I do not think "nor" is
> exclusive to two. We use "or" in multiple situations; why must "nor" be
> only in comparison?
I'll have to see if I can find the exact text. My guess is that Davies
would have objected to "or" as well as "nor." But it's impossible. I
believe in older English you do often get "nor x nor y" or "or x or y"
and only later is "either" or "neither" used to start the series. So the
"rule" may be an artificial one. But I'm no linguist, & my knowledge of
the history of the language is in bits & pieces.