I do not know the history of how "McDonalds" became a brand name, and
brand names pay no attention as a rule to rules. But it could well be
simply a plural rather than a possessive. If it simply is the name of a
family, i.e., the McDonalds, then the possessive would be "Mcdonalds' "
and would not be in the brand name.
Date sent: Tue, 29 Oct 2002 23:21:56 -0800
Send reply to: "T. S. Eliot Discussion forum." <[log in to unmask]>
From: Peter Montgomery <[log in to unmask]>
Subject: OT: Further it's
To: [log in to unmask]
I will more than willingly take advice from you on this use of the
apostophe(s). It looks as weird as all get out, to me, but I guess it's
McDonald's' prices are rising.