> I might place it further in the context of TSE and not OFF TOPIC by
> referring anyone interested to Eliot's 1919 review of G. Gregory Smith's
> book, _Scottish Literature:  Character and Influence_.  Eliot addressed
the
> question, "Was There a Scottish Literature?" and concluded that the
> answer was "no"--on grounds of language.  Eliot clearly did not know the
> history of the Scots language, but let that go.  Naturally MacDiarmid
> disagreed.  I have written about, it if anyone wants to read it, in my
> contribution to _Hugh MacDiarmid:  The Man and His Work_."  I note this
> only to point out that the specific cultural question is directly an Eliot
> question, one I think would be interesting to discuss.
> Nancy

Do you have a reference for Eliot's review? I'd like to check it out. Thanks
for referring to your own work as well - I'll try to get hold of a copy of
that too.

My other post about the role of the Scottish aristocracy in the clearances
was only a way of emphasizing a distinction that was already implicit in
your posts. In this discussion you've always seemed to me to avoid the trap
of a sweeping, unreconstructed 'Scottishism'. I was just pointing out that
that charge wouldn't stick.

Yours,

Raphael Ingelbien
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