One other point or two.
--On Wednesday, July 27, 2005 2:01 PM -0400 [log in to unmask] wrote:
So Eliot published what he saw as an incomplete
> poem at best (I think he never got over the exercising of the
> "titanic-esque" passages) in order to further "the movement" and to make
> some money.
Isn't his writing of the poem of more interest than its publishing
history? I.e. he wanted money to publish it, but that reflects not at all
on why he wrote it, and one could as well suppose when the time to publish
came that he knew what he had in wanting a lot for it. Also, why conflate
Pound's supposed motives with Eliot's?